Why Women's Orgasms?

[Brandye]

Q: Why do women have orgasms?
A: No one knows, but many of us are glad we do.

This thread is motivated by a thread on ways to enhance the chances of pregnancy. Guruguy added that orgasm helps and cited an article in Psychology Today. A problem with learning science from popular magazines is the articles are written by people being paid by the word and working under time suspense. They may or may not have any expertise in their subjects. They will often find a few scientific articles with facts and throw the stuff on paper. Most subjects being researched are not so simple. The female orgasm certainly is complex judging from the art, history, medical and theological treatises devoted to the topic.

Women’s orgasms have been documented as far back as art exists. Pre-columbian art of meso-America; Egyptian tomb art; illustrations of the Kama Sutra (India) and Perfumed Garden (Arabia); murals at Pompeii all depict sex in ways that imply or explicate female enjoyment. Talmudic scholars of thousands of years ago specified how often an observant Jew was required to “satisfy his wife” depending upon his occupation. Goddesses of Egyptian, Greek, Roman and Celtic mythology had sexual hungers. Both ancient Chinese and Japanese bridegrooms were given elaborately illustrated manuals for their wedding nights (brides got their own versions). But, yet, other cultures banned sexual enjoyment for women even to the point of genital mutilation to prevent their pleasure and, possibly, to cause sex to be painful.

The woman’s orgasm has been cited as everything from a character flaw to a sleep aid! History of Elizabethan times and Victorian times in Europe reflects change in sexual mores of women. The times of Elizabeth I (the Virgin Queen) included such bawdy classics as Tom Jones and Fannie Hill but by the mid-19th century, such antics were not even discussed in polite company and brothels had sprung up in the “good parts” of cities for the convenience of gentlemen who did not wish to bother their wives. In the 1880s, Dr W.K. Kellogg of corn flake fame wrote a monster thesis on sexual behaviour in which he acknowledged that some women had “sexual tremors.” These were not normal and were to be discouraged in his words. These were the times that visible pregnancy led to confinement. It was untoward for a proper woman to appear in public with a protruding belly that said, “I’ve been laid!” At about the same time, Krafft-Ebing wrote his classic Psychopathia Sexualis. He felt constrained to write the title and parts of the text in Latin to discourage reading by lay persons. He did acknowledge female orgasm and even treated such delicate topics as “genital kissing.” His view was that orgasm was experienced by both genders to encourage procreation. On the continent of Europe, Krafft-Ebing’s work was widely read and started a revolution that included the invention of the diaphragm and cervical cap. In the UK and North America, the Victorian views held sway for much longer. Freud was not much help as his view of women was that they were incomplete men and their sexual behaviour was guided by men or by a woman’s desire to have a penis.
All of us who have a greater respect for scientific knowledge than for some abstract God, believe that all aspects of our anatomy and physiology has evolved to ensure the continuance of the specie. The anatomy of men and women is evident and most people have at least a gross knowledge of who was what and what is to be done with it. The physiology of the male orgasm is well understood and has an obvious purpose – deliver sperm to where it may find an egg. The physiology of the female orgasm is less well understood (argument over the G-Spot and female ejaculation) and the purpose is unknown – we get just as pregnant whether or not we reach orgasm, and that is all nature cares about.

In the 1950s, Masters & Johnson, in writing their books Male Sexual Response and Female Sexual Response, reported for the first time that the uterus went into contractions during intense orgasm. This was first noted while making movies of the internal parts during orgasm when one women, on her period, expelled menstrual fluid with such force that it shot out through her vagina and the speculum and hit the camera lens. They also noted while watching the resolution phase after orgasm that the cervix descended into a pool shaped depression on the posterior fornix where semen could be expected to accumulate. Masters and Johnson made no attempt to show that more sperm were gathered into the uterus as a result of these observations but others have tried.

Physiological evolutionists have gone to great length to prove that the woman’s orgasm contributes to pregnancy and the propagation of the human species. This is done, they say, because the likelihood of sperm entering the uterus is increased. Psychological evolutionists still point to the work of Krafft-Ebing and say that the pleasure the woman receives is what attracts her to sex and exposing herself to the chance of pregnancy and propagation. Each side in this dispute has some strength to its argument but neither has been able to prove their point in scientific terms. Each ignores a third, also not provable, possibility.

This requires that we each reverse popular wisdom. Instead of thinking of the clitoris as an underdeveloped penis, think of the penis as an overdeveloped clitoris. All embryos are initially female. It is not until several days after fertilization of the egg that the Y chromosome does its thing and begins the development of the male. During this very early stage of development, the new body is forming as a female and includes all clues to develop the initial characteristics of a woman. This would include the signals to develop nipples and a clitoris. Only later will the signals change, because of the Y chromosome, to determine that the gonads will develop as testes rather than ovaries and a shaft will be added behind the clitoris – which is really analogous to the glans penis rather than the penis. This means that eventually the man’s “clitoris” will be extended several inches from the body while the woman’s will be enveloped within the folds of the vulva (which, in a male, become the scrotum). The clitoris in a mature woman and glans penis in a mature male have the same nerves and these are the nerves whose stimulation results in sexual arousal. This means that all humans are programmed for sexual satisfaction even before the gender is determined. It also leads to a greater mutuality in the procreative process.

Here, then, are three explanations: Female orgasm leads to procreation by sucking sperm into the uterus (physiological explanation). Orgasm makes procreation fun and leads us women to risk it (psychological explanation). We are all programmed to enjoy sex (developmental explanation).

So, why do women have orgasms? Damned if I know but I am looking forward to my next one, right now, even though a thirty year old cologne bottle has never made anyone pregnant!

[sera300]

Wow, what an in depth explanation to theory! Thanks Brandye!

[gorgeous_mistake]

I love the "development explanation", it makes sense to me and gives this different perspective of our bodies!!! So cool!! ... cool? That's an odd word to use for this, but I'll stick to it!

[Ducy]

I think the developmental aspect makes sense. (I mean what other use does the clitoris have except for pleasure)

The psychological explanation makes sense too. I mean what else could make a woman have more than 1 kid if the sex wasnt worth the risk?

And the physiological makes sense as well.

Id have to say its definitely a combination of the three. I mean after an orgasm my partner definitely feels "smaller"...well tighter. Even with the fears of pregnancy that we have been through, it still hasnt stopped her from initiating or craving it. And I mean hey...there is never anything wrong with an orgasm!

[oedipussy]

So why is this titled "Why women have orgasms" instead of "Why people have orgasms"?

Coming from a medical professional such as yourself, I'm disappointed that you perceive a female orgasm as some sort of mysterious enigma and write off a male orgasm as merely a way to deliver sperm to an egg. It's just common sense that both occur for the exact same reasons (Physiological, psychological, whatever else you said). If you can explain the male orgasm, you can explain the female orgasm... OK, sure, the physical purpose for a female's orgasm is less obvious than a male's - I'll give you that. But it's been shown to increase the chance of pregnancy in theory - case closed. And yes, it's not necessary for the woman to have an orgasm to become pregnant, but then, it's not technically necessary for the male to have one either. And finally, of course the reason behind sex feeling good is to encourage people, women AND men, to do it - if it didn't feel good, why would anyone bother? So basically what I'm getting at is - you haven't presented any evidence that the female orgasm is inherently different than the male orgasm other than the production of semen.

And I'm pretty curious about how you can give so many thorough, logical explanations for exactly why women have orgasms, and then turn right around and say that you have no idea why. HUH? That makes absolutely no sense AT ALL.

So why did I type this message? Because I thought this article was a tad sexist (though perhaps I'm reading way too much into it - it happens) and too afraid to actually answer the question. But I have no idea why I typed this message...

[Brandye]

No one wonders why men have orgasms: the ejaculation is needed to deliver sperm deep into the woman and being pleasureable makes the man want to do it as often as possible.

Women's orgasms have no clearly demonstrated purpose. Hence the attempts to explain. And you are correct that all three make sense and the answer likely encompasses all three. No researcher will get rich and famous by proclaiming that. Scientific politics are as devious and ruthless as other politics.

A discussion of scientific findings requires clear explication of each alternative and then a conclusion. There is your clear explication of these three hypotheses. They all make a bit of sense and, really, who cares which is "correct?"

Researchers will study anything - like why poop is brown - if they think they will become famous.

Sexist? Think about it. We ALL began as female zygotes. That has got to be the basic body. Once the effects of the Y chromosome kick in, some are diverted to becoming a male body. And for most of history, the clitoris has been described as an undeveloped penis. It was there first.

And my theory about why you typed that message is you wanted to be a jerk.

[Ephemera]

I just kinda figured that the female orgasm is around so that women will want to have sex more often.

Whatever the reason - I like it.

[oedipussy]

No, I didn't just want to be a jerk. I apologize for coming off that way - It was late and I was tired.

I guess what I mainly took issue with was the "men are simple and utilitarian" vibe I got from reading this. I honestly don't even know why something that trivial bothered me, but for some reason it did. I'm over it now...

Regardless, apparently we pretty much agree on this issue.

[EvilEvilKitten]

Why do some/most people have orgasms? To bind humans together for the good of the offspring. It is not enough to 'make' the child - you have to raise the child. This is best done within a stable pair-bond. The orgasm, with the parental instincts, helps this bonding through the release of euphoric brain endorphins. Yes, male and female orgasms are the same.

[Brandye]

Evil.

You are absolutely correct from a sociological or ethical position. I could not agree more. From the perspective of what purpose the female orgasm serves, we have to look at more basic functions. The tom cat rarely hangs around after his friend is no longer in heat.