condom questions

[J-ROC]

Does anyone know the pregnancy frequency of having intercourse with a condom(that comes with spermicidal lube), with no noticeable breaks, and not ejaculating "in her"? *

AND, are most pregnancies with condom use caused by visible/noticeable breakage? does anyone know the numbers of pregnancies when visible breakage doesn't occur?

All the stats I find just say that they are 95% to 97% effective when ejaculated in. I'm not sure if those pregnancies are caused by visible breakage, or miniature holes, or whatever other reasons.

Also, what brand of condoms do you guys find most trustworthy, durability wise? I can't really find any condom brand reviews.

Thanks.

- J-ROC

[demonbuttercup]

i think usually it says they are 95-97% effective when used correctly. so i would assume that means you put them on right and they do not break.
of course not ejaculating in them would make them much more effective.

[Brandye]

The effectiveness of any contraceptive is measured by pregnancies per 100 per year of use. If 100 women use a condom every time they have sex for a yearm you can expect 15 of them to become pregnant. Somewhere on the board is a post I did long ago on various techniques.

The amount of spermicidal lube on a condom is almost insignificant. If she places an applicator full of spermicide in her vagina (vaginal jelly, foam, film, suppository) the pregnancies are reduced from 15 per 100 women to about 3. I also recommend placing a bit of spermicidal jelly inside the condom.

The failure you allude to, more often than not, is not leakage through the condom but leakage around the base. In other words, when the pamphlet says to with drow, it means it. The spermicidal lube inside the condom helps protect agains this and also allows the penis to slide a little bit feeling more natural. I do not have a penis. Ask the man who owns one.