The amount is not making sense to me...1/2 cup? The amount of fluid which a man will ejaculate is about 2 Tbsp. Perhaps it's a mix of precum and urine? I know there are times when you are about to orgasm that the "valve" to void only allows semen. I can not see the male genitalia (testes & prostate) holding that amount of fluid or producing it during sexual stimulation. I am at a loss here...Need Brandye, EEK, or DancinDoc2...They have a greater focus on sex and arousal states. Honestly, I lack the in depth knowledge they do. I have never seen a man shoot that quantity!!! I seems like a ton as it flows out of us women but it truly is not. From a medical point I do not see how that is possible, not saying anyone is lying or being untruthful, but I can not think from an anatomical prospective how it happens. As I said, unless it's a mix of precum and urine. Urine is not always concentrated, in fact in a healthy patient it's watery looking or has a very slight pale yellow color. And it should not smell unless is concentrated (meaning you did not drink enough H2O).
Since so many men have similar experiences I am curious myself for an explanation! Doubt everyone here is being untruthful...would like some insight!
